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  1. Home
  2. CheckPoint
  3. Check Point Certified Security Administrator - R82
  4. CheckPoint.156-215.82.v2026-10-12.q172
  5. Question 131
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Question 131/172

What is the command line to verify the backup was created?

Correct Answer: D
The correct answer from the provided CCSA item is D. The Gaia backup workflow uses Gaia Portal and Gaia Clish to create and review system backups. In the answer set, show backups is the only valid- looking Gaia Clish command intended to list backup information and confirm that backup output exists. The other options are malformed: show backup last-successful, show backup list-successful, and show backup successful are not proper Gaia-style commands for listing created backups. Check Point's R82 Gaia documentation also describes verification/recovery workflows where administrators can open the gateway shell and use Gaia Clish backup-related show commands, including show backup logs, to locate the compressed backup file name after a backup operation. The course item's expected command is therefore show backups, while the broader operational point is to verify backup creation from Gaia backup status/log information and ensure the generated .tgz backup file is present before relying on it. Reference topics: Gaia Administration, System Backup, Gaia Clish backup verification, backup logs.

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Other Question (172q)
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Q2. Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one...
Q3. Which of the following best describes how Access Role objects enhance identity-based polic...
Q4. Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encrypt...
Q5. In which deployment type is the log indexing disabled by default?...
Q6. Which command shows the installed licenses?
Q7. Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________....
Q8. The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detec...
Q9. Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off....
Q10. What are the two main processes of the Identity Awareness blade?...
Q11. What is one main purpose of URL Filtering?
Q12. Customer's R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade ...
Q13. Which of the following is a best practice for URL Filtering?...
Q14. To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrato...
Q15. What is the effect of enabling "Shared Layer" in an Inline Layer?...
Q16. Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being down...
Q17. Which of the following is a key advantage of using predefined Autonomous Threat Prevention...
Q18. When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?...
Q19. Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and inst...
Q20. What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?...
Q21. What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?...
Q22. Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API's?...
Q23. Which feature enhances security by restricting access to the Management Server to only tho...
Q24. You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You h...
Q25. What does URL Filtering primarily focus on?
Q26. How do you match a user or a computer identity in the security policy?...
Q27. What are the valid types of Administrator Accounts?...
Q28. What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?...
Q29. A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally mana...
Q30. Where is the "Hit Count" feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?...
Q31. In Check Point Security Management, what is the term for a logical grouping of one or more...
Q32. What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?
Q33. Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?...
Q34. Which process receives identity data from identity sources and organizes the data into tab...
Q35. When should you enable log indexing on a Standalone Deployment?...
Q36. What is the purpose of the Security Policies menu in SmartConsole?...
Q37. A security administrator wants to integrate a third-party system with Check Point to send ...
Q38. Which Identity Awareness client is used in high-volume environments that use Microsoft Act...
Q39. What is the recommended service for web browsing in Application Control?...
Q40. What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?...
Q41. When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be ...
Q42. Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?...
Q43. Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?...
Q44. When Accounting is enabled what is the time interval the logs are being updated?...
Q45. When should you generate new licenses?
Q46. With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Serv...
Q47. What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?...
Q48. What type of logs capture security-related events such as firewall activity and VPN connec...
Q49. By default, alerts about specific security events are sent by which method?...
Q50. Select the correct description of the SmartView Monitor....
Q51. What is true of the URL Filtering Software Blade?...
Q52. What is the primary benefit of Autonomous Threat Prevention?...
Q53. Which of these is one of the Identity Sources used by the Identity Awareness Blade?...
Q54. Which authentication method is the simplest for SmartConsole admin accounts?...
Q55. What best describes the capability of the anti-bot blade?...
Q56. Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?...
Q57. What are the different types of Policy Layers supported in an Access Control Policy?...
Q58. In addition to the ability to add New objects, the Object Explorer lets you:...
Q59. Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized di...
Q60. The CDT utility supports which of the following?...
Q61. Select the correct description of the Explicit Rules....
Q62. What is a primary benefit of NAT?
Q63. A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the...
Q64. What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?...
Q65. Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway...
Q66. Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?...
Q67. An administrator wants to identify which users are generating the most security events. Wh...
Q68. Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authenticatio...
Q69. Which component is the source of the Logs sent to the Log Server?...
Q70. One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the fol...
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Q72. What is the purpose of the Change Log in SmartConsole?...
Q73. What is the difference between the Positive Control Model and the Negative Control Model?...
Q74. Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode....
Q75. What is the purpose of Security Zones in rulebase creation?...
Q76. Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?...
Q77. Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?...
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Q79. Which of these Autonomous Threat Prevention profiles mainly focuses on providing extensive...
Q80. R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:...
Q81. Select the most correct statement about policy types....
Q82. You can see the following graphic: (Exhibit) What is presented on it?...
Q83. Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?...
Q84. What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?...
Q85. Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Ma...
Q86. True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on...
Q87. Which of these is one of the components of Check Point's three-tier architecture?...
Q88. Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen of an Access Role Object?...
Q89. Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?...
Q90. Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?...
Q91. When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway, the Security Gateway checks it against the ...
Q92. What is the advantage of Autonomous Threat Prevention?...
Q93. What is the SOLR database for?
Q94. Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN commu...
Q95. What of the following is NOT an Identity Source supported by the Check Point Identity Awar...
Q96. Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of b...
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Q98. What is the main purpose of objects in SmartConsole?...
Q99. What is true about the IPS-Blade?
Q100. When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?...
Q101. What is a best practice for managing SmartConsole administrator accounts?...
Q102. What is the primary function of the 'Trusted Clients' feature in SmartConsole?...
Q103. Which feature / blade can be used on both Check Point servers; the Security Management ser...
Q104. What is the purpose of the Objects menu in SmartConsole?...
Q105. Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?...
Q106. What is the primary purpose of the Access Control Policy?...
Q107. What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
Q108. What should be added at the end of each Ordered Layer?...
Q109. Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?...
Q110. Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy laye...
Q111. Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you s...
Q112. Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet...
Q113. What is the default Implicit Cleanup Action in both Ordered and Inline Layers?...
Q114. What is a benefit of https inspection?
Q115. Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the __________...
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Q117. Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?...
Q118. Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?...
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Q121. What is a recommended best practice after deploying Autonomous Threat Prevention?...
Q122. Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?...
Q123. Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces...
Q124. When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce change...
Q125. Which SmartConsole feature allows to filter logs using predefined or custom queries?...
Q126. What is the difference between the Access Control policy and NAT policy?...
Q127. Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be ...
Q128. What are the predefined Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles?...
Q129. Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?...
Q130. Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?...
Q131. What is the command line to verify the backup was created?...
Q132. What methods could be used with Custom Queries for querying logs?...
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Q138. What does URL Filtering primarily focus on?
Q139. Which type of object represents Office 365?
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Q141. Log query results can be exported to what file format?...
Q142. Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Appli...
Q143. What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status: (Exhibit) Choose the BEST answer....
Q144. True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Mana...
Q145. When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory...
Q146. How is an Autonomous Threat Prevention Policy created?...
Q147. DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?...
Q148. You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action...
Q149. Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores ...
Q150. What is the purpose of the Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) in Identity Awareness?...
Q151. Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using vi...
Q152. What management solution does Check Point offer as a service to deliver unified management...
Q153. Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requ...
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Q155. A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?...
Q156. After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about na...
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Q164. With Autonomous Threat-Prevention, you can choose a profile that best fits your needs. Wha...
Q165. Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?...
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Q167. What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?
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Q170. Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?...
Q171. Which of the following groups represents valid administrator types in the Quantum Security...
Q172. Select the correct predefined profile of the Autonomous Threat Prevention....
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