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  1. Home
  2. Cisco
  3. Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies
  4. Cisco.350-701.v2023-09-20.q606
  5. Question 1

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Question 1/606

What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: B,C

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Other Question (606q)
Q1. What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution? (Choose two.)...
Q2. What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?...
Q3. A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on...
Q4. An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices The default ...
Q5. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right. ...
Q6. Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network archit...
Q7. A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that ...
Q8. Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between site...
Q9. An administrator enables Cisco Threat Intelligence Director on a Cisco FMC. Which process ...
Q10. Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?...
Q11. What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two.)...
Q12. Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the ...
Q13. What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of...
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed to...
Q15. Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto ...
Q16. An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants t...
Q17. What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Se...
Q18. Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?...
Q19. What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported...
Q20. Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the left into a sequence on the rig...
Q21. Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have th...
Q22. An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network b...
Q23. Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?...
Q24. What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate appli...
Q25. Drag and drop the features of Cisco ASA with Firepower from the left onto the benefits on ...
Q26. Which DevSecOps implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly o...
Q27. Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of ...
Q28. What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?...
Q29. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDyn...
Q30. An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is u...
Q31. An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an unencrypted link between them fo...
Q32. An engineer has been tasked with implementing a solution that can be leveraged for securin...
Q33. An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In orde...
Q34. What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?...
Q35. What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?...
Q36. What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?
Q37. What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)
Q38. Which VMware platform does Cisco ACI integrate with to provide enhanced visibility, provid...
Q39. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What function does the API key perfo...
Q40. Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Id...
Q41. Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right (Exhibit...
Q42. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security ap...
Q43. Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right. (...
Q44. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)...
Q45. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on t...
Q46. Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?...
Q47. Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity pr...
Q48. What is a feature of Cisco NetFlow Secure Event Logging for Cisco ASAs?...
Q49. An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traff...
Q50. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDyn...
Q51. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to ena...
Q52. Which endpoint protection and detection feature performs correlation of telemetry, files, ...
Q53. Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Choose two)...
Q54. An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject em...
Q55. Which feature within Cisco ISE verifies the compliance of an endpoint before providing acc...
Q56. Which type of data exfiltration technique encodes data in outbound DNS requests to specifi...
Q57. Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto ...
Q58. What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and d...
Q59. What is the term for the concept of limiting communication between applications or contain...
Q60. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
Q61. An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL ...
Q62. A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Thir...
Q63. An email administrator is setting up a new Cisco ESA. The administrator wants to enable th...
Q64. Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?...
Q65. What do tools like Jenkins, Octopus Deploy, and Azure DevOps provide in terms of applicati...
Q66. With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of all files that have been execut...
Q67. Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recogn...
Q68. An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured bot...
Q69. Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto ...
Q70. A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser whi...
Q71. Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation In...
Q72. After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach t...
Q73. A network engineer has configured a NTP server on a Cisco ASA. The Cisco ASA has IP reacha...
Q74. An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is...
Q75. Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?...
Q76. What is the target in a phishing attack?
Q77. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which configuration item makes it possible to have the AAA...
Q78. An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Ci...
Q79. Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a...
Q80. Which Cisco ISE service checks the compliance of endpoints before allowing the endpoints t...
Q81. Drag and drop the features of Cisco ASA with Firepower from the left onto the benefits on ...
Q82. What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode'?...
Q83. Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email thr...
Q84. Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right....
Q85. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)...
Q86. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed...
Q87. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detectors from the...
Q88. Which Cisco platform provides an agentless solution to provide visibility across the netwo...
Q89. What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a...
Q90. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right. ...
Q91. Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?...
Q92. Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right....
Q93. A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on...
Q94. In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an ...
Q95. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command was used to generate this output and to show...
Q96. An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executi...
Q97. Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthenti...
Q98. Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto ...
Q99. An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked...
Q100. What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a phishing attack?...
Q101. A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external aut...
Q102. What are two ways a network administrator transparently identifies users using Active Dire...
Q103. What is the concept of Cl/CD pipelining?
Q104. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are two indications of the Cisco Firepower Services M...
Q105. How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?
Q106. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which type of authentication is in use?...
Q107. What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)...
Q108. For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (...
Q109. A security engineer must add destinations into a destination list in Cisco Umbrell a. What...
Q110. Which DevSecOps implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly o...
Q111. What is an advantage of the Cisco Umbrella roaming client?...
Q112. What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? ...
Q113. What is a prerequisite when integrating a Cisco ISE server and an AD domain?...
Q114. What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring pur...
Q115. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the rig...
Q116. What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)...
Q117. What is a feature of Cisco NetFlow Secure Event Logging for Cisco ASAs?...
Q118. Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?...
Q119. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?...
Q120. What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?...
Q121. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detectors from the...
Q122. Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?...
Q123. How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?...
Q124. An administrator is adding a new Cisco ISE node to an existing deployment. What must be do...
Q125. Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?...
Q126. Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two.)...
Q127. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from th...
Q128. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed...
Q129. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detectors from the...
Q130. What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a...
Q131. Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platform to learn the normal behavior...
Q132. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command was used to display this output?...
Q133. Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion ...
Q134. After a recent breach, an organization determined that phishing was used to gain initial a...
Q135. What provides total management for mobile and PC including managing inventory and device t...
Q136. Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto ...
Q137. When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security fin...
Q138. Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is tr...
Q139. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their...
Q140. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the rig...
Q141. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the result of this Python script of the Cisco DNA ...
Q142. What is the difference between Cross-site Scripting and SQL Injection, attacks?...
Q143. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the result of using this authentication protocol i...
Q144. Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two)...
Q145. What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?...
Q146. Which function is the primary function of Cisco AMP threat Grid?...
Q147. Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the ...
Q148. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What will occur when this device tries to connect to the p...
Q149. How does a cloud access security broker function?...
Q150. What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)
Q151. An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be preven...
Q152. What is the result of the ACME-Router(config)#login block-for 100 attempts 4 within 60 com...
Q153. What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)...
Q154. A company discovered an attack propagating through their network via a file. A custom file...
Q155. Which CoA response code is sent if an authorization state is changed successfully on a Cis...
Q156. What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one r...
Q157. Which form of attack is launched using botnets?...
Q158. An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth by blocking malicious destinat...
Q159. A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ...
Q160. Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight vir...
Q161. When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security fin...
Q162. When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security fin...
Q163. How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely perfor...
Q164. For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (...
Q165. Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the ...
Q166. Drag and drop the cryptographic algorithms for IPsec from the left onto the cryptographic ...
Q167. What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)...
Q168. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
Q169. In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?...
Q170. An organization wants to secure users, data, and applications in the cloud. The solution m...
Q171. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right. ...
Q172. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator configures command authorization f...
Q173. Which metric is used by the monitoring agent to collect and output packet loss and jitter ...
Q174. A network engineer must configure a Cisco ESA to prompt users to enter two forms of inform...
Q175. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What will happen when the Python script is executed?...
Q176. Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right....
Q177. What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?...
Q178. Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact flags?...
Q179. Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to display this output?...
Q180. Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right (Exhibit...
Q181. Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right. (Exhibit)...
Q182. What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against p...
Q183. A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trus...
Q184. What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)...
Q185. Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices...
Q186. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunn...
Q187. A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto is akmp key cisc0380739941 ...
Q188. An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be a...
Q189. What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)...
Q190. A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trus...
Q191. Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?...
Q192. When MAB is configured for use within the 802.1X environment, an administrator must create...
Q193. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right. ...
Q194. Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network archit...
Q195. Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors fro...
Q196. Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Cho...
Q197. What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two.)...
Q198. Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platform to learn the normal behavior...
Q199. Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console to detect specific MD5 signatu...
Q200. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
Q201. What is a benefit of using GET VPN over FlexVPN within a VPN deployment?...
Q202. Which two actions does the Cisco Identity Services Engine posture module provide that ensu...
Q203. What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two.)...
Q204. What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?...
Q205. Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious...
Q206. Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Preventio...
Q207. An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be preven...
Q208. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right. ...
Q209. Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the customer but not the provider...
Q210. An administrator is adding a new switch onto the network and has configured AAA for networ...
Q211. Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? {Choose two.)...
Q212. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What will occur when this device tries to connect to the p...
Q213. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDyn...
Q214. An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the M...
Q215. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command was used to generate this output and to show...
Q216. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDyn...
Q217. What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?...
Q218. Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to ...
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Q220. An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is...
Q221. Which type of attack is MFA an effective deterrent for?...
Q222. What features does Cisco FTDv provide over ASAv?...
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Q225. Which benefit does DMVPN provide over GETVPN?
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Q227. How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise-owned storage?...
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Q230. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?...
Q231. Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)...
Q232. A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that ...
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Q234. Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple secur...
Q235. What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?...
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Q240. Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity pr...
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Q242. What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)...
Q243. Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of the configuration?...
Q244. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detector...
Q245. Refer to the exhibit. import requests url = https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers headers...
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Q248. Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?...
Q249. Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right....
Q250. Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email thr...
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Q258. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What will occur when this device tries to connect to the p...
Q259. What is an attribute of the DevSecOps process?...
Q260. What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?...
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Q262. Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?...
Q263. Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?...
Q264. What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?...
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Q342. An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be preven...
Q343. Which service allows a user export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco...
Q344. What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported...
Q345. How does a WCCP-configured router identify if the Cisco WSA is functional?...
Q346. An organization has a requirement to collect full metadata information about the traffic g...
Q347. Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right. (...
Q348. Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Id...
Q349. Which API is used for Content Security?
Q350. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which statement about the authentication protocol used in ...
Q351. An organization is selecting a cloud architecture and does not want to be responsible for ...
Q352. Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right. (Exhibit)...
Q353. In which two ways does a system administrator send web traffic transparently to the Web Se...
Q354. Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?...
Q355. An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUI into a new en...
Q356. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?...
Q357. Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that...
Q358. Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Genera...
Q359. Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)...
Q360. Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right. (Exhibit)...
Q361. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An organization is using DHCP Snooping within their networ...
Q362. How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints provide next-generation protection?...
Q363. When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active...
Q364. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDyn...
Q365. What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information abou...
Q366. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of the configuration?...
Q367. Which solution is made from a collection of secure development practices and guidelines th...
Q368. Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing?
Q369. What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Se...
Q370. Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right....
Q371. Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two.)...
Q372. What are two functions of IKEv1 but not IKEv2? (Choose two)...
Q373. Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right. (...
Q374. Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)...
Q375. Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have th...
Q376. Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)...
Q377. Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?...
Q378. An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrell a. The users are able to ...
Q379. Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the customer but not the provider...
Q380. Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right. (...
Q381. Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Choose two)...
Q382. What is an attribute of the DevSecOps process?...
Q383. An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the M...
Q384. Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the r...
Q385. Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has the latest OS updates and patc...
Q386. Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?...
Q387. An engineer is adding a Cisco router to an existing environment. NTP authentication is con...
Q388. Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)...
Q389. An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants t...
Q390. Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right....
Q391. Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious...
Q392. Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose tw...
Q393. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
Q394. What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?...
Q395. Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?...
Q396. A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help...
Q397. Which baseline form of telemetry is recommended for network infrastructure devices?...
Q398. An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traff...
Q399. Drag and drop the cloud security assessment components from the left onto the definitions ...
Q400. What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?...
Q401. Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco DNA center? (Choose two...
Q402. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating ...
Q403. Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?...
Q404. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network administrator configures command authorization f...
Q405. Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right. (...
Q406. With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of all files that have been execut...
Q407. Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?
Q408. Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right. (...
Q409. Which type of attack is social engineering?
Q410. Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing...
Q411. Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the ri...
Q412. How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?...
Q413. What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a...
Q414. Refer to the exhibit. All servers are in the same VLAN/Subnet. DNS Server-1 and DNS Server...
Q415. Why is it important for the organization to have an endpoint patching strategy?...
Q416. Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?...
Q417. Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right (Exhibit...
Q418. Drag and drop the cryptographic algorithms for IPsec from the left onto the cryptographic ...
Q419. What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported...
Q420. Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the ri...
Q421. Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have th...
Q422. What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring pur...
Q423. What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming...
Q424. Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)...
Q425. Which posture assessment requirement provides options to the client for remediation and re...
Q426. Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platform to learn the normal behavior...
Q427. Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?...
Q428. An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network b...
Q429. Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right (Exhibit...
Q430. A hacker initiated a social engineering attack and stole username and passwords of some us...
Q431. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?...
Q432. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is a result of the configuration?...
Q433. An engineer is trying to securely connect to a router and wants to prevent insecure algori...
Q434. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the rig...
Q435. (Exhibit) Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to display this output?...
Q436. Refer to the exhibit. What does this python script accomplish?...
Q437. Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)...
Q438. An administrator configures a new destination list in Cisco Umbrella so that the organizat...
Q439. Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)...
Q440. Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?...
Q441. An organization deploys multiple Cisco FTD appliances and wants to manage them using one c...
Q442. A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain...
Q443. Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a ne...
Q444. A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on...
Q445. Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing...
Q446. An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an unencrypted link between them fo...
Q447. When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS router, an administrator needs to ...
Q448. A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for a...
Q449. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which statement about the authentication protocol used in ...
Q450. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security ap...
Q451. Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two)...
Q452. What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 comman...
Q453. Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right (Exhib...
Q454. What is the term for when an endpoint is associated to a provisioning WLAN that is shared ...
Q455. Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?...
Q456. A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ...
Q457. In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?...
Q458. Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct ...
Q459. Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP...
Q460. What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information abou...
Q461. What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one r...
Q462. An administrator configures new authorization policies within Cisco ISE and has difficulty...
Q463. An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured bot...
Q464. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
Q465. Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force ...
Q466. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?...
Q467. A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for a...
Q468. Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?...
Q469. An engineer is adding a Cisco DUO solution to the current TACACS+ deployment using Cisco I...
Q470. Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the left into a sequence on the rig...
Q471. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDyn...
Q472. Which RADIUS attribute can you use to filter MAB requests in an 802.1 x deployment?...
Q473. An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL ...
Q474. Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right....
Q475. What two mechanisms are used to redirect users to a web portal to authenticate to ISE for ...
Q476. In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most of...
Q477. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is a result of the configuration?...
Q478. What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?...
Q479. For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs?...
Q480. An organization wants to secure users, data, and applications in the cloud. The solution m...
Q481. What will happen when the Python script is executed?...
Q482. Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recogn...
Q483. What must be used to share data between multiple security products?...
Q484. An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new en...
Q485. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed to...
Q486. An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network b...
Q487. What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?...
Q488. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What will happen when this Python script is run?...
Q489. How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?
Q490. A company identified a phishing vulnerability during a pentest What are two ways the compa...
Q491. An organization wants to secure users, data and applications m the cloud. The solution mus...
Q492. What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two.)...
Q493. Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the left into a sequence on the rig...
Q494. A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to pr...
Q495. An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices Specific URLs must be blocked ...
Q496. An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be a...
Q497. Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?...
Q498. Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the ...
Q499. What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?...
Q500. How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?...
Q501. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which command was used to display this output?...
Q502. What is the purpose of the Cisco Endpoint IoC feature?...
Q503. Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recogn...
Q504. An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device admin...
Q505. What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?
Q506. How is DNS tunneling used to exfiltrate data out of a corporate network?...
Q507. An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the M...
Q508. Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?...
Q509. An organization has a Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud deployment in their environment. Cloud logg...
Q510. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security ap...
Q511. How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?
Q512. What is the difference between Cross-site Scripting and SQL Injection, attacks?...
Q513. Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly acc...
Q514. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the rig...
Q515. Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right. (...
Q516. A network administrator is configuring a switch to use Cisco ISE for 802.1X. An endpoint i...
Q517. How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?...
Q518. Which solution is more secure than the traditional use of a username and password and enco...
Q519. What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? ...
Q520. An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an unencrypted link between them fo...
Q521. Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly acc...
Q522. Elliptic curve cryptography is a stronger more efficient cryptography method meant to repl...
Q523. Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP...
Q524. An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP deployment and encounters issues...
Q525. Which open source tool does Cisco use to create graphical visualizations of network teleme...
Q526. Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?...
Q527. Drag and drop the cloud security assessment components from the left onto the definitions ...
Q528. An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be a...
Q529. In which scenario is endpoint-based security the solution?...
Q530. Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can ...
Q531. An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirected traffic over ports 80 and 44...
Q532. Which configuration method provides the options to prevent physical and virtual endpoint d...
Q533. How is DNS tunneling used to exfiltrate data out of a corporate network?...
Q534. Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePower sensor to Firepower Management Cen...
Q535. Drag and drop the cryptographic algorithms for IPsec from the left onto the cryptographic ...
Q536. A network engineer has been tasked with adding a new medical device to the network. Cisco ...
Q537. When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security fin...
Q538. Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)...
Q539. For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose ...
Q540. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their...
Q541. Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Id...
Q542. Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?...
Q543. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynam...
Q544. Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices...
Q545. A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Thir...
Q546. Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?...
Q547. Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto ...
Q548. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
Q549. Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto ...
Q550. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from th...
Q551. What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?...
Q552. In which two ways does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution protect users? (Cho...
Q553. Which Cisco solution extends network visibility, threat detection, and analytics to public...
Q554. Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right....
Q555. What is the benefit of integrating Cisco ISE with a MDM solution?...
Q556. An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC...
Q557. Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right. (Exhibit)...
Q558. Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the ...
Q559. What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?...
Q560. Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organizati...
Q561. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain What must be config...
Q562. What is a function of Cisco AMP for Endpoints?...
Q563. An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA. Which C...
Q564. What is the role of Cisco Umbrella Roaming when it is installed on an endpoint?...
Q565. An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that it contains a list of files tha...
Q566. What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)...
Q567. What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?...
Q568. Which benefit is provided by ensuring that an endpoint is compliant with a posture policy ...
Q569. Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right (Exhib...
Q570. A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain...
Q571. An email administrator is setting up a new Cisco ESA. The administrator wants to enable th...
Q572. An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. Wh...
Q573. Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the ...
Q574. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
Q575. Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two.)...
Q576. An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices The default ...
Q577. What provides the ability to program and monitor networks from somewhere other than the DN...
Q578. Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from C...
Q579. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from th...
Q580. A network engineer has configured a NTP server on a Cisco ASA. The Cisco ASA has IP reacha...
Q581. How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?...
Q582. Drag and drop the cloud security assessment components from the left onto the definitions ...
Q583. Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches ...
Q584. A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Thir...
Q585. Which two components do southbound APIs use to communicate with downstream devices? (Choos...
Q586. Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy ...
Q587. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynam...
Q588. An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is u...
Q589. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the rig...
Q590. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating ...
Q591. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?...
Q592. An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is co...
Q593. Which attack is preventable by Cisco ESA but not by the Cisco WSA?...
Q594. Which statement describes a serverless application?...
Q595. Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP...
Q596. Which method of attack is used by a hacker to send malicious code through a web applicatio...
Q597. Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious...
Q598. Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) An organization is using DHCP Snooping within their networ...
Q599. An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In orde...
Q600. Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP...
Q601. When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS router, an administrator needs to ...
Q602. Drag and drop the deployment models from the left onto the explanations on the right. (Exh...
Q603. Which system facilitates deploying microsegmentation and multi-tenancy services with a pol...
Q604. Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the ...
Q605. With which components does a southbound API within a software-defined network architecture...
Q606. Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right. (Exhi...
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