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  1. Home
  2. DAMA
  3. Data Management Fundamentals
  4. DAMA.DMF-1220.v2023-12-21.q135
  5. Question 1

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Instant Messaging (IM) allows a user to message each other in real-time.

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Other Question (135q)
Q1. Instant Messaging (IM) allows a user to message each other in real-time....
Q2. There are several reasons to denormalize dat a. The first is to improve performance by:...
Q3. Oversight for the DMMA process belongs to the Data Quality team....
Q4. A goal of a Reference and Master Data Management program include enabling master and refer...
Q5. Wat data architecture designs represent should be clearly documented. Examples include:...
Q6. To push up the urgency level requires adding of the sources of complacency or increasing o...
Q7. Examples of business metadata include:
Q8. Security Risks include elements that can compromise a network and/or database....
Q9. Data modeller: responsible for fata model version control an change control...
Q10. Big data primarily refers specifically to the volume of the data....
Q11. The language used in file-based solutions is called MapReduce. This language has three mai...
Q12. Data governance and IT governance are the same thing....
Q13. Domains can be identified in different ways including: data type; data format; list; range...
Q14. A roadmap for enterprise data architecture describes the architecture's 3 to 5-year develo...
Q15. Data professional should not balance the short-term versus long-term business interests....
Q16. A general principle for managing metadata includes Responsibility....
Q17. Business activity information is one of the types of data that can be modelled....
Q18. Developing complex event processing solutions require:...
Q19. Data models are critical to effective management of dat a. They:...
Q20. Key processing steps for MDM include:
Q21. Please select the correct types of data stewards:...
Q22. When assessing security risks it is required to evaluate each system for the following:...
Q23. Please select the user that best describes the following description: Uses the business gl...
Q24. Effective data management involves a set of complex, interrelated processes that disable a...
Q25. An effective team is based on two simple foundations: trust and a common goal....
Q26. As an often-overlooked aspects of basic data movement architecture, Process controls inclu...
Q27. Metrics tied to Reference and Master Data quality include:...
Q28. Examples of concepts that can be standardized within the data architecture knowledge area ...
Q29. On example of a transformation process in ETL is:...
Q30. When constructing models and diagrams during formalisation of data architecture there are ...
Q31. Many people assume that most data quality issues are caused by data entry errors. A more s...
Q32. Value is the difference between the cost of a thing and the benefit derived from that thin...
Q33. Operational reports are outputs from the data stewards....
Q34. Differentiating between data and information. Please select the correct answers based on t...
Q35. A goal of Data warehouse and business intelligence is to support and enable ineffective bu...
Q36. Please select the three types of data models:
Q37. Risk classifications describe the sensitivity of the data and the likelihood that it might...
Q38. Three data governance operating models types include:...
Q39. Business requirements is an input in the Data Warehouse and Business Intelligence context ...
Q40. Inputs in the Data Integration and Interoperability context diagram include:...
Q41. The flow of data in a data integration solution does not have to be designed and documente...
Q42. Effectiveness metrics for a data governance programme includes: achievement of goals and o...
Q43. The dependencies of enterprise technology architecture are that it acts on specified data ...
Q44. The list of V's include:
Q45. What ISO standard defines characteristics that can be tested by any organisation in the da...
Q46. Project that use personal data should have a disciplined approach to the use of that dat a...
Q47. Vulnerability is defined as:
Q48. Implementing a BI portfolio is about identifying the right tools for the right user commun...
Q49. Data and text mining use a range of techniques, including:...
Q50. Coupling describes the degree to which two systems are intertwined....
Q51. With reliable Metadata an organization does not know what data it has, what the data repre...
Q52. Confirming and documenting understanding of different perspectives facilitate:...
Q53. Please select the correct definition of Data Management from the options below....
Q54. Data mining is a sub-field of supervised learning where users attempt to model data elemen...
Q55. Please select the answers that correctly describes the set of principles that recognizes s...
Q56. The impact of the changes from new volatile data must be isolated from the bulk of the his...
Q57. Please select correct term for the following sentence: Any collection of stored data regar...
Q58. The ISO 11179 Metadata registry, an international standard for representing Metadata in an...
Q59. For each subject area logical model: Decrease detail by adding attributes and less-signifi...
Q60. Business Intelligence tool types include:
Q61. To build models, data modellers heavily rely on previous analysis and modelling work....
Q62. In the context of big data the Three V's refer to: Volume, Velocity and Validity...
Q63. Typically, DW/BI projects have three concurrent development tracks, including:...
Q64. XML is the abbreviation for standard mark-up language....
Q65. Product Master data can only focus on an organization's internal product and services....
Q66. Triplestores can be classified into these categories:...
Q67. Different levels of policy are required to govern behavior to enterprise security. For exa...
Q68. Please select the answers that correctly describes where the costs of poor quality data co...
Q69. An organization will create an uncover valuable Metadata during the process of developing ...
Q70. A goal of reference and master data is to provide authoritative source of reconciled and q...
Q71. Metrics tied to Reference and Master Data Quality include:...
Q72. The acronym BASE is made up of:
Q73. The goal of data architecture is to:
Q74. When constructing an organization's operating model cultural factors must be taken into co...
Q75. While the focus of data quality improvement efforts is often on the prevention of errors, ...
Q76. Reference and master data require governance processes, including:...
Q77. Development of goals, principles and policies derived from the data governance strategy wi...
Q78. The first two steps of the Reference data Change request process, as prescribed DMBOk2, in...
Q79. Record management starts with a vague definition of what constitutes a record....
Q80. An input in the Metadata management context diagram does not include:...
Q81. CMA is an abbreviation for Capability Maturity Assessment....
Q82. An implemented warehouse and its customer-facing BI tools is a technology product....
Q83. SOA is an abbreviation for service orientated architecture....
Q84. Examples of concepts that can be standardized within the data quality knowledge area inclu...
Q85. Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, escala...
Q86. Taxonomies can have different structures, including:...
Q87. SLA Stands for:
Q88. Controlling data availability requires management of user entitlements and of structures t...
Q89. A completely distributed architecture maintains a single access point. The metadata retrie...
Q90. Please select the correct general cost and benefit categories that can be applied consiste...
Q91. Please select the correct name for the PDM abbreviation when referring to modelling....
Q92. Part of alignment includes developing organizational touchpoints for data governance work....
Q93. SDLC stands for:
Q94. Metadata is described using three sets od categories, including:...
Q95. SOA stands for:
Q96. Small reference data value sets in the logical data model can be implemented in a physical...
Q97. The goals of Metadata management include:
Q98. Please select the option that correctly orders the models in decreasing level of detail:...
Q99. The load step of the ETL is physically storing or presenting the results of the transforma...
Q100. Document and content management is defined as planning, implementation and control activit...
Q101. Data integrity is the state of being partitioned - protected from being whole....
Q102. ANSI standard 859 has three levels of control of data, based on the criticality of the dat...
Q103. Data profiling examples include:
Q104. Consistent input data reduces the chance of errors in associating records. Preparation pro...
Q105. Functionality-focused requirements associated with a comprehensive metadata solution, incl...
Q106. A data dictionary is necessary to support the use of a DW....
Q107. Device security standards include:
Q108. Enterprise data architecture project-related activities include:...
Q109. Confidentiality classification schemas might include two or more of the five confidentiali...
Q110. Data architect: A senior analyst responsible for data architecture and data integration....
Q111. The implementation of a Data Warehouse should follow these guiding principles:...
Q112. The Data Model Scorecard provides 10 data model quality metrics...
Q113. Data management professionals who understand formal change management will be more success...
Q114. Issue management is the process for identifying, quantifying, prioritizing and resolving d...
Q115. Please select the transition phases in Bridges' Transition process:...
Q116. Decentralized informality can be made more formal through a documented series of connectio...
Q117. The Data Governance Council (DGC) manages data governance initiatives, issues, and escalat...
Q118. ANSI 859 recommends taking into account the following criteria when determining which cont...
Q119. Data modelling tools are software that automate many of the tasks the data modeller perfor...
Q120. A deliverable in the data security context diagram is the data security architecture....
Q121. Data Management Professionals only work with the technical aspects related to data....
Q122. Data quality rules and standards are a critical form of Metadat a. Ti be effective they ne...
Q123. Please select the 3 visuals that depict DAMA's Data Management Framework....
Q124. Real-time data integration is usually triggered by batch processing, such as historic data...
Q125. Please select the incorrect item that does not represent a dimension in the Data Values ca...
Q126. Data access control can be organized at an individual level or group level, depending on t...
Q127. There are numerous methods of implementing databases on the cloud. The most common are:...
Q128. In the Abate Information Triangle the past moves through the following echelons befor it c...
Q129. An advantage of a centralized repository include: High availability since it is independen...
Q130. Measuring the effects of change management on in five key areas including: Awareness of th...
Q131. Lack of automated monitoring represents serious risks, including compliance risk....
Q132. A communication plan includes an engagement model for stakeholders, the type of informatio...
Q133. Misleading visualisations could be an example where a base level of truthfulness and trans...
Q134. Principles for data asset accounting include:
Q135. A e-discovery readiness assessment should examine and identify opportunities for the comme...
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