[Feb 06, 2023] ISC CCSP Exam Dumps Files, Q101/709: All the following are data analytics modes, except:

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Question 101/709

All the following are data analytics modes, except:

A. Datamining

B. Agile business intelligence

C. Refractory iterations

D. Real-time analytics

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Other Question (709q): Q1. A DLP solution/implementation has three main components. Which of the following is NOT one...; Q2. Which of the following is NOT one of the official risk rating categories?...; Q3. You are the data manager for a retail company; you anticipate a much higher volume of sale...; Q4. What does the REST API use to protect data transmissions?...; Q5. Which component of ITIL involves planning for the restoration of services after an unexpec...; Q6. Which of the following threat types involves an application that does not validate authori...; Q7. What provides the information to an application to make decisions about the authorization ...; Q8. All of the following are activities that should be performed when capturing and maintainin...; Q9. When a system needs to be exposed to the public Internet, what type of secure system would...; Q10. Your company operates in a highly competitive market, with extremely high-value data asset...; Q11. Which of the following systems is used to employ a variety of different techniques to disc...; Q12. All of the following are activities that should be performed when capturing and maintainin...; Q13. Which ITIL component focuses on ensuring that system resources, processes, and personnel a...; Q14. Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer the most control over...; Q15. What type of storage structure does object storage employ to maintain files?...; Q16. Which of the following is considered an external redundancy for a data center?...; Q17. Which is the lowest level of the CSA STAR program?...; Q18. Which of the following is not a factor an organization might use in the cost-benefit analy...; Q19. Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?...; Q20. What concept does the D represent within the STRIDE threat model?...; Q21. Which of the following in a federated environment is responsible for consuming authenticat...; Q22. What concept does the "T" represent in the STRIDE threat model?...; Q23. What are the two protocols that TLS uses?; Q24. You are the security manager for a software development firm. Your company is interested i...; Q25. Your IT steering committee has, at a high level, approved your project to begin using clou...; Q26. Which cloud storage type is typically used to house virtual machine images that are used t...; Q27. What is the federal agency that accepts applications for new patents?...; Q28. What does dynamic application security testing (DAST) NOT entail?...; Q29. What type of masking would you employ to produce a separate data set for testing purposes ...; Q30. Gathering business requirements can aid the organization in determining all of this inform...; Q31. BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but onl...; Q32. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability for a cloud customer to ea...; Q33. Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the core components to an encryption system ...; Q34. Different security testing methodologies offer different strategies and approaches to test...; Q35. Managed cloud services exist because the service is less expensive for each customer than ...; Q36. What is a standard configuration and policy set that is applied to systems and virtual mac...; Q37. Which of the cloud deployment models offers the most control and input to the cloud custom...; Q38. Which value refers to the amount of time it takes to recover operations in a BCDR situatio...; Q39. IRM solutions allow an organization to place different restrictions on data usage than wou...; Q40. Which aspect of cloud computing pertains to cloud customers only paying for the resources ...; Q41. Which of the following is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the ...; Q42. Which of the following is considered a technological control?...; Q43. Which of the following is NOT an application or utility to apply and enforce baselines on ...; Q44. Which aspect of cloud computing will be most negatively impacted by vendor lock-in?...; Q45. Which crucial aspect of cloud computing can be most threatened by insecure APIs?...; Q46. What is the primary reason that makes resolving jurisdictional conflicts complicated?...; Q47. Which of the following threat types involves an application that does not validate authori...; Q48. Many of the traditional concepts of systems and services for a traditional data center als...; Q49. A user signs on to a cloud-based social media platform. In another browser tab, the user f...; Q50. Which one of the following threat types to applications and services involves the sending ...; Q51. Which of the following methods of addressing risk is most associated with insurance? Respo...; Q52. Each of the following is an element of the Identification phase of the identity and access...; Q53. Although encryption can help an organization to effectively decrease the possibility of da...; Q54. Data labels could include all the following, except:...; Q55. With a federated identity system, what does the identity provider send information to afte...; Q56. What is the best source for information about securing a physical asset's BIOS?...; Q57. Which of the following is the best and only completely secure method of data destruction?...; Q58. With finite resources available within a cloud, even the largest cloud providers will at t...; Q59. Which European Union directive pertains to personal data privacy and an individual's contr...; Q60. Which of the following storage types are used with an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) s...; Q61. What aspect of data center planning occurs first? Response:...; Q62. Which cloud deployment model would be ideal for a group of universities looking to work to...; Q63. Which component of ITIL pertains to planning, coordinating, executing, and validating chan...; Q64. Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP...; Q65. Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud provider, regardless of whi...; Q66. As a result of scandals involving publicly traded corporations such as Enron, WorldCom, an...; Q67. Your company has just been served with an eDiscovery order to collect event data and other...; Q68. What concept does the "T" represent in the STRIDE threat model?...; Q69. Which of the following is a widely used tool for code development, branching, and collabor...; Q70. With the rapid emergence of cloud computing, very few regulations were in place that perta...; Q71. Which value refers to the percentage of production level restoration needed to meet BCDR o...; Q72. Firewalls are used to provide network security throughout an enterprise and to control wha...; Q73. Which security concept would business continuity and disaster recovery fall under?...; Q74. Which of the following best describes SAML?; Q75. What is the experimental technology that might lead to the possibility of processing encry...; Q76. Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a traditional file sy...; Q77. The tasks performed by the hypervisor in the virtual environment can most be likened to th...; Q78. Which of the following is NOT a factor that is part of a firewall configuration?...; Q79. With software-defined networking, what aspect of networking is abstracted from the forward...; Q80. Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?...; Q81. Which of the following systems is used to employ a variety of different techniques to disc...; Q82. Which of the following can be useful for protecting cloud customers from a denial-of-servi...; Q83. What concept does the "A" represent in the DREAD model?...; Q84. A honeypot can be used for all the following purposes except ____________....; Q85. Which of the cloud deployment models is used by popular services such as iCloud, Dropbox, ...; Q86. Although the United States does not have a single, comprehensive privacy and regulatory fr...; Q87. Which of the following might make crypto-shredding difficult or useless? Response:...; Q88. A virtual network interface card (NIC) exists at layer __________ of the OSI model. Respon...; Q89. What is a serious complication an organization faces from the perspective of compliance wi...; Q90. Which of the following characteristics is associated with digital rights management (DRM) ...; Q91. Penetration testing is a(n) __________ form of security assessment....; Q92. A UPS should have enough power to last how long?...; Q93. Just like the risk management process, the BCDR planning process has a defined sequence of...; Q94. Which aspect of security is DNSSEC designed to ensure?...; Q95. For performance purposes, OS monitoring should include all of the following except:...; Q96. Which of the following aspects of cloud computing would make it more likely that a cloud p...; Q97. Firewalls are used to provide network security throughout an enterprise and to control wha...; Q98. Which of the following threat types can occur when an application does not properly valida...; Q99. What is the best source for information about securing a physical asset's BIOS?...; Q100. Which aspect of cloud computing would make the use of a cloud the most attractive as a BCD...; Q101. All the following are data analytics modes, except:...; Q102. SOC Type 1 reports are considered "restricted use," in that they are intended only for lim...; Q103. A honeypot can be used for all the following purposes except ____________. Response:...; Q104. Resolving resource contentions in the cloud will most likely be the job of the ___________...; Q105. The cloud deployment model that features joint ownership of assets among an affinity group...; Q106. Which of the following best describes a sandbox?...; Q107. Although host-based and network-based IDSs perform similar functions and have similar capa...; Q108. What are the U.S. State Department controls on technology exports known as?...; Q109. What strategy involves replacing sensitive data with opaque values, usually with a means o...; Q110. Which of the following roles is responsible for peering with other cloud services and prov...; Q111. In order to comply with regulatory requirements, which of the following secure erasure met...; Q112. During the assessment phase of a risk evaluation, what are the two types of tests that are...; Q113. Which United States law is focused on accounting and financial practices of organizations?...; Q114. The BCDR plan/process should be written and documented in such a way that it can be used b...; Q115. DAST checks software functionality in ____________....; Q116. Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:...; Q117. Which is the lowest level of the CSA STAR program?...; Q118. A web application firewall (WAF) can understand and act on ________ traffic. Response:...; Q119. Which of the following roles involves overseeing billing, purchasing, and requesting audit...; Q120. Which aspect of cloud computing serves as the biggest challenge to using DLP to protect da...; Q121. Which attribute of data poses the biggest challenge for data discovery?...; Q122. A UPS should have enough power to last how long?...; Q123. One of the main components of system audits is the ability to track changes over time and ...; Q124. Which of the following is not included in the OWASP Top Ten web application security threa...; Q125. What type of storage structure does object storage employ to maintain files?...; Q126. The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes, the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats ...; Q127. Who will determine data classifications for the cloud customer?...; Q128. You are the security manager for an online retail sales company with 100 employees and a p...; Q129. Federation should be __________ to the users.; Q130. Many of the traditional concepts of systems and services for a traditional data center als...; Q131. According to the (ISC)2 Cloud Secure Data Life Cycle, which phase comes soon after (or at ...; Q132. When a system needs to be exposed to the public Internet, what type of secure system would...; Q133. Which of the following represents a minimum guaranteed resource within a cloud environment...; Q134. Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the core components to an encryption system ...; Q135. The European Union passed the first major regulation declaring data privacy to be a human ...; Q136. Which of the following is NOT an application or utility to apply and enforce baselines on ...; Q137. Although the United States does not have a single, comprehensive privacy and regulatory fr...; Q138. Which European Union directive pertains to personal data privacy and an individual's contr...; Q139. Log data should be protected ____________. Response:...; Q140. You are working for a cloud service provider and receive an eDiscovery order pertaining to...; Q141. Which of the following methods of addressing risk is most associated with insurance?...; Q142. Audits are either done based on the status of a system or application at a specific time o...; Q143. Modern web service systems are designed for high availability and resiliency. Which concep...; Q144. Which type of software is most likely to be reviewed by the most personnel, with the most ...; Q145. A poorly negotiated cloud service contract could result in all the following detrimental e...; Q146. Which of the following roles is responsible for peering with other cloud services and prov...; Q147. All of the following are terms used to described the practice of obscuring original raw da...; Q148. Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the create phase of the cloud da...; Q149. DLP can be combined with what other security technology to enhance data controls?...; Q150. Which of the following roles involves the connection and integration of existing systems a...; Q151. Which of the following types of organizations is most likely to make use of open source so...; Q152. Which of the following statements about Type 1 hypervisors is true?...; Q153. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used communications method within cloud environme...; Q154. Which of the following is a possible negative aspect of bit-splitting?...; Q155. In order to comply with regulatory requirements, which of the following secure erasure met...; Q156. What type of masking strategy involves replacing data on a system while it passes between ...; Q157. Which of the following best describes a cloud carrier?...; Q158. A cloud provider is looking to provide a higher level of assurance to current and potentia...; Q159. Along with humidity, temperature is crucial to a data center for optimal operations and pr...; Q160. From the perspective of compliance, what is the most important consideration when it comes...; Q161. Which of the following is a commonly used tool for maintaining system configurations?...; Q162. Which of the cloud deployment models requires the cloud customer to be part of a specific ...; Q163. You were recently hired as a project manager at a major university to implement cloud serv...; Q164. Which of the following are distinguishing characteristics of a managed service provider?...; Q165. The application normative framework is best described as which of the following?...; Q166. The tasks performed by the hypervisor in the virtual environment can most be likened to th...; Q167. Which of the following report is most aligned with financial control audits?...; Q168. With a federated identity system, where would a user perform their authentication when req...; Q169. Tokenization requires two distinct _________________ ....; Q170. Which of the following is NOT something that an HIDS will monitor?...; Q171. The SOC Type 2 reports are divided into five principles. Which of the five principles must...; Q172. Which of the following is a widely used tool for code development, branching, and collabor...; Q173. Which security certification serves as a general framework that can be applied to any type...; Q174. If a company needed to guarantee through contract and SLAs that a cloud provider would alw...; Q175. What type of security threat is DNSSEC designed to prevent?...; Q176. Which value refers to the amount of data an organization would need to recover in the even...; Q177. Which of the following is a method for apportioning resources that involves setting maximu...; Q178. Clustered systems can be used to ensure high availability and load balancing across indivi...; Q179. Your boss has tasked your team with getting your legacy systems and applications connected...; Q180. Which of the following are attributes of cloud computing?...; Q181. What type of host is exposed to the public Internet for a specific reason and hardened to ...; Q182. Humidity levels for a data center are a prime concern for maintaining electrical and compu...; Q183. In a federated identity arrangement using a trusted third-party model, who is the identity...; Q184. What controls the formatting and security settings of a volume storage system within a clo...; Q185. Which of the following aspects of cloud computing would make it more likely that a cloud p...; Q186. You are the security policy lead for your organization, which is considering migrating fro...; Q187. Which of the following security technologies is commonly used to give administrators acces...; Q188. Your IT steering committee has, at a high level, approved your project to begin using clou...; Q189. What is the best approach for dealing with services or utilities that are installed on a s...; Q190. You are the security subject matter expert (SME) for an organization considering a transit...; Q191. Which of the following is essential for getting full security value from your system basel...; Q192. Which of the following concepts refers to a cloud customer paying only for the resources a...; Q193. Patches do all the following except ____________. Response:...; Q194. What is the biggest negative to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain...; Q195. Which of the following is NOT one of the main intended goals of a DLP solution?...; Q196. The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats t...; Q197. What is the cloud service model in which the customer is responsible for administration of...; Q198. When reviewing the BIA after a cloud migration, the organization should take into account ...; Q199. Which of the following roles involves the connection and integration of existing systems a...; Q200. Before deploying a specific brand of virtualization toolset, it is important to configure ...; Q201. Which of the following service categories entails the least amount of support needed on th...; Q202. Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied...; Q203. What is the data encapsulation used with the SOAP protocol referred to?...; Q204. What are SOCI/SOCII/SOCIII?; Q205. Software-defined networking (SDN) is intended to separate different network capabilities a...; Q206. Which of the following is a method for apportioning resources that involves setting guaran...; Q207. When using a PaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?...; Q208. You are working for a cloud service provider and receive an eDiscovery order pertaining to...; Q209. Which of the following is not an enforceable governmental request? Response:...; Q210. What is the biggest challenge to data discovery in a cloud environment?...; Q211. On large distributed systems with pooled resources, cloud computing relies on extensive or...; Q212. What sort of legal enforcement may the Payment Card Industry (PCI) Security Standards Coun...; Q213. Countermeasures for protecting cloud operations against external attackers include all of ...; Q214. What type of masking strategy involves making a separate and distinct copy of data with ma...; Q215. What category of PII data can carry potential fines or even criminal charges for its impro...; Q216. Which of the following is NOT a major regulatory framework?...; Q217. Which jurisdiction lacks specific and comprehensive privacy laws at a national or top leve...; Q218. All of the following are activities that should be performed when capturing and maintainin...; Q219. Which ITIL component focuses on ensuring that system resources, processes, and personnel a...; Q220. Which of the following does NOT relate to the hiding of sensitive data from data sets?...; Q221. Which type of software is most likely to be reviewed by the most personnel, with the most ...; Q222. Which of the following is the recommended operating range for temperature and humidity in ...; Q223. Which of the following in a federated environment is responsible for consuming authenticat...; Q224. The Brewer-Nash security model is also known as which of the following? Response:...; Q225. Which of the following publishes the most commonly used standard for data center design in...; Q226. You are a consultant performing an external security review on a large manufacturing firm....; Q227. Which value refers to the amount of time it takes to recover operations in a BCDR situatio...; Q228. Proper implementation of DLP solutions for successful function requires which of the follo...; Q229. Every cloud service provider that opts to join the CSA STAR program registry must complete...; Q230. A cloud provider is looking to provide a higher level of assurance to current and potentia...; Q231. An audit scope statement defines the limits and outcomes from an audit. Which of the follo...; Q232. What are the four cloud deployment models? Response:...; Q233. Which strategy involves using a fake production system to lure attackers in order to learn...; Q234. Which protocol operates at the network layer and provides for full point-to-point encrypti...; Q235. Within a SaaS environment, what is the responsibility on the part of the cloud customer in...; Q236. When a system needs to be exposed to the public Internet, what type of secure system would...; Q237. Which data state would be most likely to use digital signatures as a security protection m...; Q238. Which of the following aspects of security is solely the responsibility of the cloud provi...; Q239. What does the REST API support that SOAP does NOT support?...; Q240. Which aspect of SaaS will alleviate much of the time and energy organizations spend on com...; Q241. Many tools and technologies are available for securing or monitoring data in transit withi...; Q242. Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud customer, regardless of whi...; Q243. Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer the least amount of c...; Q244. In the cloud motif, the data owner is usually:...; Q245. Limits for resource utilization can be set at different levels within a cloud environment ...; Q246. Which ITIL component is an ongoing, iterative process of tracking all deployed and configu...; Q247. Which component of ITIL pertains to planning, coordinating, executing, and validating chan...; Q248. Digital investigations have adopted many of the same methodologies and protocols as other ...; Q249. Which of the following are the storage types associated with IaaS?...; Q250. Which component of ITIL involves the creation of an RFC ticket and obtaining official appr...; Q251. What is the intellectual property protection for a confidential recipe for muffins?...; Q252. Which of the following is the biggest concern or challenge with using encryption?...; Q253. A crucial decision any company must make is in regard to where it hosts the data systems i...; Q254. Which of the following types of data would fall under data rights management (DRM) rather ...; Q255. Which of the following is not a component of contractual PII?...; Q256. Cloud environments pose many unique challenges for a data custodian to properly adhere to ...; Q257. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the assigning of jobs, tasks, and role...; Q258. The REST API is a widely used standard for communications of web-based services between cl...; Q259. What is the most secure form of code testing and review?...; Q260. Which of the following is not a way to manage risk?...; Q261. Which of the following are the storage types associated with PaaS?...; Q262. Which of the following is an example of useful and sufficient data masking of the string "...; Q263. In a cloud environment, encryption should be used for all the following, except:...; Q264. Which of the cloud deployment models involves spanning multiple cloud environments or a mi...; Q265. Which one of the following is not one of the three common threat modeling techniques? Resp...; Q266. Which of the following terms is NOT a commonly used category of risk acceptance?...; Q267. Which of the following is NOT one of the cloud computing activities, as outlined in ISO/IE...; Q268. Which of the following jurisdictions lacks a comprehensive national policy on data privacy...; Q269. When using a SaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?...; Q270. Which of the following is a widely used tool for code development, branching, and collabor...; Q271. Which type of testing tends to produce the best and most comprehensive results for discove...; Q272. Countermeasures for protecting cloud operations against internal threats include all of th...; Q273. Which of the following are not examples of personnel controls? Response:...; Q274. What strategy involves hiding data in a data set to prevent someone from identifying speci...; Q275. Which of the following tasks within a SaaS environment would NOT be something the cloud cu...; Q276. Log data should be protected ____________.; Q277. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application sec...; Q278. A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network--some that just monitor f...; Q279. How is an object stored within an object storage system?...; Q280. Although much of the attention given to data security is focused on keeping data private a...; Q281. Audits are either done based on the status of a system or application at a specific time o...; Q282. Audits are either done based on the status of a system or application at a specific time o...; Q283. Which of the following is the primary purpose of an SOC 3 report?...; Q284. Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:...; Q285. In which cloud service model is the customer required to maintain the OS?...; Q286. What principle must always been included with an SOC 2 report? Response:...; Q287. Which regulatory system pertains to the protection of healthcare data?...; Q288. Which value refers to the amount of data an organization would need to recover in the even...; Q289. What is the most secure form of code testing and review? Response:...; Q290. Cloud vendors are held to contractual obligations with specified metrics by: Response:...; Q291. In addition to whatever audit results the provider shares with the customer, what other me...; Q292. The SOC Type 2 reports are divided into five principles. Which of the five principles must...; Q293. Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP...; Q294. You are a consultant performing an external security review on a large manufacturing firm....; Q295. Which of the following is not typically included in the list of critical assets specified ...; Q296. When an organization is considering a cloud environment for hosting BCDR solutions, which ...; Q297. Which of the following are considered to be the building blocks of cloud computing?...; Q298. You are in charge of creating the BCDR plan and procedures for your organization. Your org...; Q299. Which of the following roles would be responsible for managing memberships in federations ...; Q300. Best practices for key management include all of the following, except:...; Q301. Different types of audits are intended for different audiences, such as internal, external...; Q302. Which audit type has been largely replaced by newer approaches since 2011?...; Q303. Which aspect of SaaS will alleviate much of the time and energy organizations spend on com...; Q304. Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle involves processing by a user or application?...; Q305. Jurisdictions have a broad range of privacy requirements pertaining to the handling of per...; Q306. Which of these characteristics of a virtualized network adds risks to the cloud environmen...; Q307. In the wake of many scandals with major corporations involving fraud and the deception of ...; Q308. A data custodian is responsible for which of the following?...; Q309. With an application hosted in a cloud environment, who could be the recipient of an eDisco...; Q310. A main objective for an organization when utilizing cloud services is to avoid vendor lock...; Q311. Humidity levels for a data center are a prime concern for maintaining electrical and compu...; Q312. Who would be responsible for implementing IPsec to secure communications for an applicatio...; Q313. Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied...; Q314. Which of the following attempts to establish an international standard for eDiscovery proc...; Q315. Which of the following would probably best aid an organization in deciding whether to migr...; Q316. Which concept BEST describes the capability for a cloud environment to automatically scale...; Q317. Which United States law is focused on data related to health records and privacy?...; Q318. When an API is being leveraged, it will encapsulate its data for transmission back to the ...; Q319. What concept and operational process must be spelled out clearly, as far as roles and resp...; Q320. Which of the following would NOT be considered part of resource pooling with an Infrastruc...; Q321. Hardening the operating system refers to all of the following except:...; Q322. The ISO/IEC 27001:2013 security standard contains 14 different domains that cover virtuall...; Q323. Which of the following is not a way to manage risk?...; Q324. Designers making applications for the cloud have to take into consideration risks and oper...; Q325. The Cloud Security Alliance's (CSA's) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) addresses all the follow...; Q326. You need to gain approval to begin moving your company's data and systems into a cloud env...; Q327. In order to ensure ongoing compliance with regulatory requirements, which phase of the clo...; Q328. Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is usually considered a ________ form of testi...; Q329. Which ITIL component is focused on anticipating predictable problems and ensuring that con...; Q330. Which of the following threat types involves the sending of untrusted data to a user's bro...; Q331. What is the only data format permitted with the SOAP API?...; Q332. DLP solutions can aid all of the following security-related efforts except ____________. R...; Q333. Anonymization is the process of removing from data sets. Response:...; Q334. Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a traditional file sy...; Q335. What is the term that describes the situation when a malicious user/attacker can exit the ...; Q336. BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but onl...; Q337. A DLP solution/implementation has three main components. Which of the following is NOT one...; Q338. Fiber-optic lines are considered part of layer __________ of the OSI model. Response:...; Q339. Which of the following is the least challenging with regard to eDiscovery in the cloud?...; Q340. What is the best approach for dealing with services or utilities that are installed on a s...; Q341. What type of storage structure does object storage employ to maintain files?...; Q342. Modern web service systems are designed for high availability and resiliency. Which concep...; Q343. When a user accesses a system, what process determines the roles and privileges that user ...; Q344. You are the security director for a chain of automotive repair centers across several stat...; Q345. You are the security manager of a small firm that has just purchased a DLP solution to imp...; Q346. Which of the following best describes the purpose and scope of ISO/IEC 27034-1?...; Q347. The SOC Type 2 reports are divided into five principles. Which of the five principles must...; Q348. The most pragmatic option for data disposal in the cloud is which of the following?...; Q349. Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data in use?...; Q350. What are the U.S. State Department controls on technology exports known as?...; Q351. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application sec...; Q352. You work for a government research facility. Your organization often shares data with othe...; Q353. If a company needed to guarantee through contract and SLAs that a cloud provider would alw...; Q354. When an organization implements an SIEM solution and begins aggregating event data, the co...; Q355. What type of PII is regulated based on the type of application or per the conditions of th...; Q356. A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network--some that just monitor f...; Q357. You are the security manager for a company that is considering cloud migration to an IaaS ...; Q358. What is one of the reasons a baseline might be changed?...; Q359. Which of the following pertains to a macro level approach to data center design rather tha...; Q360. Which of the following statements best describes a Type 1 hypervisor?...; Q361. With a cloud service category where the cloud customer is responsible for deploying all se...; Q362. All policies within the organization should include a section that includes all of the fol...; Q363. Which of the following is NOT one of the cloud computing activities, as outlined in ISO/IE...; Q364. Without the extensive funds of a large corporation, a small-sized company could gain consi...; Q365. What is an often overlooked concept that is essential to protecting the confidentiality of...; Q366. Which of the following is not typically included in the list of critical assets specified ...; Q367. Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the handshake protocol of TLS?...; Q368. All of the following are activities that should be performed when capturing and maintainin...; Q369. Which type of testing uses the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use?...; Q370. When an organization is considering a cloud environment for hosting BCDR solutions, which ...; Q371. Within a SaaS environment, what is the responsibility on the part of the cloud customer in...; Q372. The management plane is used to administer a cloud environment and perform administrative ...; Q373. What is a form of cloud storage where data is stored as objects, arranged in a hierarchal ...; Q374. Which of the following cloud aspects complicates eDiscovery?...; Q375. Which of the following statements accurately describes VLANs?...; Q376. Which of the following is characterized by a set maximum capacity?...; Q377. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application sec...; Q378. Which type of testing uses the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use?...; Q379. Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the create phase of the cloud da...; Q380. You are the security policy lead for your organization, which is considering migrating fro...; Q381. Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the "create" phase of the cloud ...; Q382. Which technique involves replacing values within a specific data field to protect sensitiv...; Q383. There are two general types of smoke detectors. Which type uses a small portion of radioac...; Q384. Which of the following roles is responsible for obtaining new customers and securing contr...; Q385. Which of the following is NOT a component of access control?...; Q386. Digital investigations have adopted many of the same methodologies and protocols as other ...; Q387. Which aspect of security is DNSSEC designed to ensure?...; Q388. Which of the following roles is responsible for overseeing customer relationships and the ...; Q389. Your organization is considering a move to a cloud environment and is looking for certific...; Q390. Which of the following is not typically included as a basic phase of the software developm...; Q391. Most APIs will support a variety of different data formats or structures. However, the SOA...; Q392. Which of the following is not one of the types of controls?...; Q393. Which of the following is a possible negative aspect of bit-splitting? Response:...; Q394. Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the core components to an encryption system ...; Q395. Which of the following standards primarily pertains to cabling designs and setups in a dat...; Q396. What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers?...; Q397. Which of the following BCDR testing methodologies is least intrusive? Response:...; Q398. Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP...; Q399. Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a database-type stora...; Q400. Other than cost savings realized due to measured service, what is another facet of cloud c...; Q401. What are the U.S. Commerce Department controls on technology exports known as?...; Q402. Which OSI layer does IPsec operate at?; Q403. Which security concept is based on preventing unauthorized access to data while also ensur...; Q404. Implementing baselines on systems would take an enormous amount of time and resources if t...; Q405. Which of the following is not a risk management framework?...; Q406. Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer the most control over...; Q407. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application sec...; Q408. Which of the following involves assigning an opaque value to sensitive data fields to prot...; Q409. Just like the risk management process, the BCDR planning process has a defined sequence of...; Q410. Which protocol does the REST API depend on?; Q411. Which of the cloud deployment models is used by popular services such as iCloud, Dropbox, ...; Q412. The use of which of the following technologies will NOT require the security dependency of...; Q413. The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats t...; Q414. Resolving resource contentions in the cloud will most likely be the job of the ___________...; Q415. DRM solutions should generally include all the following functions, except:...; Q416. In order to prevent cloud customers from potentially consuming enormous amounts of resourc...; Q417. Which of the following technologies is used to monitor network traffic and notify if any p...; Q418. Which of the following roles is responsible for gathering metrics on cloud services and ma...; Q419. Three central concepts define what type of data and information an organization is respons...; Q420. What can tokenization be used for? Response:; Q421. Which kind of SSAE audit reviews controls dealing with the organization's controls for ass...; Q422. A virtual network interface card (NIC) exists at layer __________ of the OSI model....; Q423. Which of the following does NOT fall under the "IT" aspect of quality of service (QoS)?...; Q424. Data masking can be used to provide all of the following functionality, except:...; Q425. Firewalls can detect attack traffic by using all these methods except ____________....; Q426. Which of the following involves assigning an opaque value to sensitive data fields to prot...; Q427. Which of the following is a restriction that can be enforced by information rights managem...; Q428. According to OWASP recommendations, active software security testing should include all of...; Q429. Apart from using encryption at the file system level, what technology is the most widely u...; Q430. What aspect of data center planning occurs first?...; Q431. Which cloud service category would be most ideal for a cloud customer that is developing s...; Q432. A cloud data encryption situation where the cloud customer retains control of the encrypti...; Q433. What concept does the "D" represent with the STRIDE threat model?...; Q434. Which of the following provides assurance, to a predetermined acceptable level of certaint...; Q435. Which of the following is NOT a key area for performance monitoring as far as an SLA is co...; Q436. What strategy involves hiding data in a data set to prevent someone from identifying speci...; Q437. Which of the following would NOT be used to determine the classification of data? Response...; Q438. You are the security manager for a software development firm. Your company is interested i...; Q439. Different types of cloud deployment models use different types of storage from traditional...; Q440. Which type of controls are the SOC Type 1 reports specifically focused on?...; Q441. Which of the following provides assurance, to a predetermined acceptable level of certaint...; Q442. What does a cloud customer purchase or obtain from a cloud provider?...; Q443. What is the biggest concern with hosting a key management system outside of the cloud envi...; Q444. What are the objectives of change management? (Choose all that apply.) Response:...; Q445. DLP can be combined with what other security technology to enhance data controls?...; Q446. Many activities within a cloud environment are performed via programmatic means, where com...; Q447. Which approach is typically the most efficient method to use for data discovery?...; Q448. Which United States law is focused on PII as it relates to the financial industry?...; Q449. Which of the following data protection methodologies maintains the ability to connect back...; Q450. Within a federated identity system, which of the following would you be MOST likely to use...; Q451. DNSSEC was designed to add a layer of security to the DNS protocol. Which type of attack w...; Q452. Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle represents the first instance where security contr...; Q453. What must SOAP rely on for security since it does not provide security as a built-in capab...; Q454. Static software security testing typically uses __________ as a measure of how thorough th...; Q455. For performance purposes, OS monitoring should include all of the following except:...; Q456. Which of the following is NOT a focus or consideration of an internal audit?...; Q457. You are the security manager of a small firm that has just purchased a DLP solution to imp...; Q458. Which of the following roles is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administe...; Q459. Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references t...; Q460. The different cloud service models have varying levels of responsibilities for functions a...; Q461. What type of masking would you employ to produce a separate data set for testing purposes ...; Q462. Within an Infrastructure as a Service model, which of the following would NOT be a measure...; Q463. Which of the following roles involves testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services for...; Q464. Although the REST API supports a wide variety of data formats for communications and excha...; Q465. There is a large gap between the privacy laws of the United States and those of the Europe...; Q466. In which cloud service model is the customer required to maintain the OS?...; Q467. Using one cloud provider for your operational environment and another for your BCDR backup...; Q468. Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data c...; Q469. Which component of ITIL involves handling anything that can impact services for either int...; Q470. Which of the following roles involves the provisioning and delivery of cloud services?...; Q471. Security best practices in a virtualized network environment would include which of the fo...; Q472. Which format is the most commonly used standard for exchanging information within a federa...; Q473. One of the main components of system audits is the ability to track changes over time and ...; Q474. Why does a Type 1 hypervisor typically offer tighter security controls than a Type 2 hyper...; Q475. Which of the following is a valid risk management metric?...; Q476. Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied...; Q477. As part of the auditing process, getting a report on the deviations between intended confi...; Q478. Because of multitenancy, specific risks in the public cloud that don't exist in the other ...; Q479. What does the REST API support that SOAP does NOT support?...; Q480. When an API is being leveraged, it will encapsulate its data for transmission back to the ...; Q481. Identity and access management (IAM) is a security discipline that ensures which of the fo...; Q482. What type of PII is regulated based on the type of application or per the conditions of th...; Q483. Virtual machine (VM) configuration management (CM) tools should probably include _________...; Q484. Which of the following is the least challenging with regard to eDiscovery in the cloud?...; Q485. Which of the following is the optimal humidity level for a data center, per the guidelines...; Q486. To protect data on user devices in a BYOD environment, the organization should consider re...; Q487. You have been tasked with creating an audit scope statement and are making your project ou...; Q488. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for data within the scope of eDiscovery?...; Q489. Which of the following is perhaps the best method for reducing the risk of a specific appl...; Q490. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application sec...; Q491. You are the security manager for a small application development company. Your company is ...; Q492. Which kind of SSAE audit reviews controls dealing with the organization's controls for ass...; Q493. Which if the following is NOT one of the three components of a federated identity system t...; Q494. Which of the following roles is responsible for creating cloud components and the testing ...; Q495. Many different common threats exist against web-exposed services and applications. One att...; Q496. Apart from using encryption at the file system level, what technology is the most widely u...; Q497. What does a cloud customer purchase or obtain from a cloud provider?...; Q498. Which United States program was designed to enable organizations to bridge the gap between...; Q499. What is the biggest negative to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain...; Q500. Many aspects and features of cloud computing can make eDiscovery compliance more difficult...; Q501. Which cloud service category offers the most customization options and control to the clou...; Q502. Which publication from the United States National Institute of Standards and Technology pe...; Q503. Single sign-on systems work by authenticating users from a centralized location or using a...; Q504. The Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol creates a secure communications channel over p...; Q505. Which aspect of archiving must be tested regularly for the duration of retention requireme...; Q506. The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes, the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats ...; Q507. Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied...; Q508. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?...; Q509. With the rapid emergence of cloud computing, very few regulations were in place that perta...; Q510. Which United States law is focused on PII as it relates to the financial industry?...; Q511. You are the data manager for a retail company; you anticipate a much higher volume of sale...; Q512. Many tools and technologies are available for securing or monitoring data in transit withi...; Q513. When an organization is considering the use of cloud services for BCDR planning and soluti...; Q514. When using an IaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?...; Q515. Static software security testing typically uses __________ as a measure of how thorough th...; Q516. Which is the appropriate phase of the cloud data lifecycle for determining the data's clas...; Q517. Your boss has tasked your team with getting your legacy systems and applications connected...; Q518. All the following are data analytics modes, except:...; Q519. Which of the cloud deployment models involves spanning multiple cloud environments or a mi...; Q520. Which attribute of data poses the biggest challenge for data discovery?...; Q521. Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?...; Q522. Egress monitoring solutions usually include a function that ____________. Response:...; Q523. The physical layout of a cloud data center campus should include redundancies of all the f...; Q524. Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer an established and ma...; Q525. Which aspect of cloud computing makes data classification even more vital than in a tradit...; Q526. An audit scope statement defines the limits and outcomes from an audit. Which of the follo...; Q527. Every cloud service provider that opts to join the CSA STAR program registry must complete...; Q528. Why does the physical location of your data backup and/or BCDR failover environment matter...; Q529. Which type of testing tends to produce the best and most comprehensive results for discove...; Q530. What is the first stage of the cloud data lifecycle where security controls can be impleme...; Q531. Which of the following may unilaterally deem a cloud hosting model inappropriate for a sys...; Q532. Your organization is considering a move to a cloud environment and is looking for certific...; Q533. Configurations and policies for a system can come from a variety of sources and take a var...; Q534. Humidity levels for a data center are a prime concern for maintaining electrical and compu...; Q535. Countermeasures for protecting cloud operations against internal threats include all of th...; Q536. Using one cloud provider for your operational environment and another for your BCDR backup...; Q537. All policies within the organization should include a section that includes all of the fol...; Q538. What concept does the "A" represent in the DREAD model?...; Q539. Which of the following data-sanitation approaches are always available within a cloud envi...; Q540. In the cloud motif, the data owner is usually:...; Q541. Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the handshake protocol of TLS?...; Q542. Which cloud storage type uses an opaque value or descriptor to categorize and organize dat...; Q543. Tokenization requires two distinct _________________ ....; Q544. What is the biggest negative to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain...; Q545. What does a cloud customer purchase or obtain from a cloud provider?...; Q546. Which United States law is focused on data related to health records and privacy?...; Q547. A crucial decision any company must make is in regard to where it hosts the data systems i...; Q548. What are third-party providers of IAM functions for the cloud environment?...; Q549. From a security perspective, what component of a cloud computing infrastructure represents...; Q550. Which of the following is considered an internal redundancy for a data center?...; Q551. Just like the risk management process, the BCDR planning process has a defined sequence of...; Q552. Legal controls refer to which of the following?...; Q553. If a company needed to guarantee through contract and SLAs that a cloud provider would alw...; Q554. Which cloud service category would be most ideal for a cloud customer that is developing s...; Q555. Which cloud deployment model is MOST likely to offer free or very cheap services to users?...; Q556. Although performing BCDR tests at regular intervals is a best practice to ensure processes...; Q557. All of the following entitles are required to use FedRAMP-accredited Cloud Service Provide...; Q558. Whereas a contract articulates overall priorities and requirements for a business relation...; Q559. Which audit type has been largely replaced by newer approaches since 2011?...; Q560. Which of the following contract terms most incentivizes the cloud provider to meet the req...; Q561. Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?...; Q562. Why does the physical location of your data backup and/or BCDR failover environment matter...; Q563. While an audit is being conducted, which of the following could cause management and the a...; Q564. At which phase of the SDLC process should security begin participating? Response:...; Q565. Which cloud service category offers the most customization options and control to the clou...; Q566. Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the "create" phase of the cloud ...; Q567. In order to comply with regulatory requirements, which of the following secure erasure met...; Q568. All of the following are usually nonfunctional requirements except ____________....; Q569. Which type of cloud service category would having a vendor-neutral encryption scheme for d...; Q570. Which of the following approaches would NOT be considered sufficient to meet the requireme...; Q571. Which type of controls are the SOC Type 1 reports specifically focused on?...; Q572. Your company is in the planning stages of moving applications that have large data sets to...; Q573. Proper implementation of DLP solutions for successful function requires which of the follo...; Q574. What controls the formatting and security settings of a volume storage system within a clo...; Q575. Which of the following characteristics is associated with digital rights management (DRM) ...; Q576. When reviewing the BIA after a cloud migration, the organization should take into account ...; Q577. It is important to include _______ in the design of underfloor plenums if they are also us...; Q578. Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data in use?...; Q579. Which networking concept in a cloud environment allows for network segregation and isolati...; Q580. SOC 2 reports were intended to be ____________. Response:...; Q581. All of the following methods can be used to attenuate the harm caused by escalation of pri...; Q582. Although indirect identifiers cannot alone point to an individual, the more of them known ...; Q583. What process is used within a clustered system to provide high availability and load balan...; Q584. Which of the following is NOT a focus or consideration of an internal audit?...; Q585. Which of the following could be used as a second component of multifactor authentication i...; Q586. Key maintenance and security are paramount within a cloud environment due to the widesprea...; Q587. Digital investigations have adopted many of the same methodologies and protocols as other ...; Q588. Which of the following should occur at each stage of the SDLC?...; Q589. What type of PII is controlled based on laws and carries legal penalties for noncompliance...; Q590. Of the following, which is probably the most significant risk in a managed cloud environme...; Q591. Which of the following is not an example of a highly regulated environment?...; Q592. Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data c...; Q593. When beginning an audit, both the system owner and the auditors must agree on various aspe...; Q594. The cloud customer will have the most control of their data and systems, and the cloud pro...; Q595. Which of the following is a risk associated with manual patching especially in the cloud?...; Q596. Which of the following would be a reason to undertake a BCDR test?...; Q597. Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references t...; Q598. Which component of ITIL involves the creation of an RFC ticket and obtaining official appr...; Q599. Deviations from the baseline should be investigated and __________________....; Q600. All of the following are identity federation standards commonly found in use today except ...; Q601. Which of the following approaches would NOT be considered sufficient to meet the requireme...; Q602. The management plane is used to administer a cloud environment and perform administrative ...; Q603. What does the management plane typically utilize to perform administrative functions on th...; Q604. Your organization is developing software for wide use by the public. You have decided to t...; Q605. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the assigning of jobs, tasks, and role...; Q606. All of the following methods can be used to attenuate the harm caused by escalation of pri...; Q607. What type of security threat is DNSSEC designed to prevent?...; Q608. Which attribute of data poses the biggest challenge for data discovery?...; Q609. What strategy involves replacing sensitive data with opaque values, usually with a means o...; Q610. Which cloud storage type resembles a virtual hard drive and can be utilized in the same ma...; Q611. Which of the following report is most aligned with financial control audits?...; Q612. You are the IT director for a small contracting firm. Your company is considering migratin...; Q613. With finite resources available within a cloud, even the largest cloud providers will at t...; Q614. What type of masking strategy involves making a separate and distinct copy of data with ma...; Q615. Your new CISO is placing increased importance and focus on regulatory compliance as your a...; Q616. The Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol creates a secure communications channel over p...; Q617. Identity and access management (IAM) is a security discipline that ensures which of the fo...; Q618. Which of the following standards primarily pertains to cabling designs and setups in a dat...; Q619. Which aspect of data poses the biggest challenge to using automated tools for data discove...; Q620. Deviations from the baseline should be investigated and __________________....; Q621. What is used for local, physical access to hardware within a data center?...; Q622. Your new CISO is placing increased importance and focus on regulatory compliance as your a...; Q623. Which of the following APIs are most commonly used within a cloud environment?...; Q624. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability for a cloud customer to ea...; Q625. Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references t...; Q626. Which of the cloud deployment models is used by popular services such as iCloud, Dropbox, ...; Q627. Which of the following cloud aspects complicates eDiscovery?...; Q628. What process is used within a clustered system to provide high availability and load balan...; Q629. What is the main reason virtualization is used in the cloud? Response:...; Q630. What concept does the A represent within the DREAD model?...; Q631. Which network protocol is essential for allowing automation and orchestration within a clo...; Q632. What type of masking would you employ to produce a separate data set for testing purposes ...; Q633. When using an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) solution, what is the capability provided...; Q634. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application sec...; Q635. The BC/DR kit should include all of the following except:...; Q636. ISO/IEC has established international standards for many aspects of computing and any proc...; Q637. Which of the following roles is responsible for gathering metrics on cloud services and ma...; Q638. BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but onl...; Q639. Because PaaS implementations are so often used for software development, what is one of th...; Q640. Which of the following data sanitation methods would be the MOST effective if you needed t...; Q641. Many activities within a cloud environment are performed via programmatic means, where com...; Q642. One of the main components of system audits is the ability to track changes over time and ...; Q643. Which of the following roles involves the provisioning and delivery of cloud services?...; Q644. What controls the formatting and security settings of a volume storage system within a clo...; Q645. For service provisioning and support, what is the ideal amount of interaction between a cl...; Q646. You are the security manager of a small firm that has just purchased a DLP solution to imp...; Q647. Data labels could include all the following, except:...; Q648. All of these are reasons an organization may want to consider cloud migration except: Resp...; Q649. Which of the following contract terms most incentivizes the cloud provider to meet the req...; Q650. Which type of testing uses the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use?...; Q651. Many activities within a cloud environment are performed via programmatic means, where com...; Q652. Which of the following is NOT one of the official risk rating categories?...; Q653. The WS-Security standards are built around all of the following standards except which one...; Q654. Under EU law, a cloud customer who gives sensitive data to a cloud provider is still legal...; Q655. Your company operates in a highly competitive market, with extremely high-value data asset...; Q656. Which of the following are considered to be the building blocks of cloud computing? Respon...; Q657. What type of data does data rights management (DRM) protect?...; Q658. In attempting to provide a layered defense, the security practitioner should convince seni...; Q659. Which of the following would NOT be included as input into the requirements gathering for ...; Q660. Which of the following is NOT a core component of an SIEM solution?...; Q661. A main objective for an organization when utilizing cloud services is to avoid vendor lock...; Q662. Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?...; Q663. If you're using iSCSI in a cloud environment, what must come from an external protocol or ...; Q664. You are the security manager for an online retail sales company with 100 employees and a p...; Q665. At which stage of the BCDR plan creation phase should security be included in discussions?...; Q666. An SLA contains the official requirements for contract performance and satisfaction betwee...; Q667. Which of the following does NOT relate to the hiding of sensitive data from data sets?...; Q668. Within a SaaS environment, what is the responsibility on the part of the cloud customer in...; Q669. Unlike SOC Type 1 reports, which are based on a specific point in time, SOC Type 2 reports...; Q670. Key maintenance and security are paramount within a cloud environment due to the widesprea...; Q671. Which of the following is considered an internal redundancy for a data center?...; Q672. Which security concept is based on preventing unauthorized access to data while also ensur...; Q673. Which security concept, if implemented correctly, will protect the data on a system, even ...; Q674. What type of security threat is DNSSEC designed to prevent?...; Q675. What is a cloud storage architecture that manages the data in a hierarchy of files?...; Q676. Your organization has made it a top priority that any cloud environment being considered t...; Q677. Of the following, which is probably the most significant risk in a managed cloud environme...; Q678. A firewall can use all of the following techniques for controlling traffic except:...; Q679. The REST API is a widely used standard for communications of web-based services between cl...; Q680. What changes are necessary to application code in order to implement DNSSEC?...; Q681. Which of the following is a valid risk management metric?...; Q682. Which aspect of cloud computing would make the use of a cloud the most attractive as a BCD...; Q683. The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Security, Trust, and Assurance Registry (STAR) program h...; Q684. Why might an organization choose to comply with the ISO 27001 standard? Response:...; Q685. What masking strategy involves the replacing of sensitive data at the time it is accessed ...; Q686. Within a federated identity system, which of the following would you be MOST likely to use...; Q687. Which of the following concepts refers to a cloud customer paying only for the resources a...; Q688. Which SSAE 16 audit report is simply an attestation of audit results?...; Q689. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application sec...; Q690. The cloud deployment model that features organizational ownership of the hardware and infr...; Q691. Which security certification serves as a general framework that can be applied to any type...; Q692. Most APIs will support a variety of different data formats or structures. However, the SOA...; Q693. Which of the following is a file server that provides data access to multiple, heterogeneo...; Q694. Which data formats are most commonly used with the REST API?...; Q695. An audit against the ________ will demonstrate that an organization has adequate security ...; Q696. Unlike SOC Type 1 reports, which are based on a specific point in time, SOC Type 2 reports...; Q697. Without the extensive funds of a large corporation, a small-sized company could gain consi...; Q698. Which of the following tools might be useful in data discovery efforts that are based on c...; Q699. Which of the following is NOT one of the cloud computing activities, as outlined in ISO/IE...; Q700. Which of the cloud deployment models offers the easiest initial setup and access for the c...; Q701. Audits are either done based on the status of a system or application at a specific time o...; Q702. Which aspect of cloud computing serves as the biggest challenge to using DLP to protect da...; Q703. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability to reuse or move component...; Q704. For optimal security, trust zones are used for network segmentation and isolation. They al...; Q705. What can tokenization be used for?; Q706. Security is a critical yet often overlooked consideration for BCDR planning. At which stag...; Q707. Although the United States does not have a single, comprehensive privacy and regulatory fr...; Q708. Which of the following is a management role, versus a technical role, as it pertains to da...; Q709. What is the concept of isolating an application from the underlying operating system for t...

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