DumpsFiles
 Request Exam  Contact
  • Home
  • PRACTICE EXAMS
    Oracle
    Fortinet
    Juniper
    Microsoft
    Cisco
    Citrix
    CompTIA
    VMware
    SAP
    EMC
    PMI
    HP
    Salesforce
    Other
  • View All Exams
  • New Dumps Files
  • Upload
  • Oracle
    Oracle
  • Fortinet
    Fortinet
  • Juniper
    Juniper
  • Microsoft
    Microsoft
  • Cisco
    Cisco
  • Citrix
    Citrix
  • CompTIA
    CompTIA
  • VMware
    VMware
  • SAP
    SAP
  • EMC
    EMC
  • PMI
    PMI
  • HP
    HP
  • Salesforce
    Salesforce
  1. Home
  2. Palo Alto Networks
  3. Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
  4. PaloAltoNetworks.PCCET.v2024-05-13.q111
  5. Question 1

Join the discussion

Question 1/111

Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: A,D
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a portion of an enterprise network that sits behind a firewall but outside of or segmented from the internal network1. The DMZ typically hosts public services, such as web, mail, and domain servers, that can be accessed by traffic from the internet1. However, the DMZ is isolated from the internal network by another firewall or security gateway, which prevents unauthorized access to the private network2. Therefore, statements A and D are true about servers in a DMZ, while statements B and C are false. Reference:
What is a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)? | F5
Demilitarized Zones (DMZs) - Secure Network Architecture - CompTIA ...

Add Comments

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

insert code
Type the characters from the picture.
Rating:
Other Question (111q)
Q1. Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)...
Q2. In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability ...
Q3. In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)...
Q4. Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to use...
Q5. Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?...
Q6. Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?...
Q7. Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them,...
Q8. A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastru...
Q9. Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s)...
Q10. Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?...
Q11. What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?...
Q12. Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Of...
Q13. What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applica...
Q14. Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?...
Q15. Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast...
Q16. Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic shou...
Q17. What is used to orchestrate, coordinate, and control clusters of containers?...
Q18. Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition. (Exhibit)...
Q19. What is the definition of a zero-day threat?
Q20. On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that h...
Q21. In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified...
Q22. What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined...
Q23. In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure route...
Q24. SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Ch...
Q25. What is used to orchestrate, coordinate, and control clusters of containers?...
Q26. Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoin...
Q27. Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram? (Exhibit)...
Q28. Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network au...
Q29. What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)...
Q30. Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?
Q31. TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?...
Q32. Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organizat...
Q33. A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and vi...
Q34. Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?...
Q35. Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network au...
Q36. How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to...
Q37. Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cl...
Q38. Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from...
Q39. How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeli...
Q40. Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?...
Q41. A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL w...
Q42. What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)...
Q43. Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps wo...
Q44. Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the...
Q45. Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resista...
Q46. Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting ...
Q47. What type of area network connects end-user devices?...
Q48. Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?...
Q49. When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to p...
Q50. Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)...
Q51. Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?...
Q52. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma...
Q53. During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (...
Q54. Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterpr...
Q55. What is the definition of a zero-day threat?
Q56. With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's ...
Q57. Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?...
Q58. Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast...
Q59. Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?
Q60. Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maint...
Q61. Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)...
Q62. Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world's most ...
Q63. Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service provi...
Q64. Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network au...
Q65. Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP addres...
Q66. Which key component is used to configure a static route?...
Q67. Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterpr...
Q68. Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?...
Q69. Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and contr...
Q70. Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?...
Q71. What is the key to "taking down" a botnet?
Q72. When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to p...
Q73. What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?...
Q74. TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?...
Q75. In the network diagram below, which device is the router? (Exhibit)...
Q76. On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?...
Q77. Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?...
Q78. Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?...
Q79. Match each tunneling protocol to its definition. (Exhibit)...
Q80. Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware exe...
Q81. What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within...
Q82. Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?...
Q83. Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with w...
Q84. Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?...
Q85. In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)...
Q86. Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?...
Q87. SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Ch...
Q88. Which option describes the "selective network security virtualization" phase of incrementa...
Q89. Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service provi...
Q90. Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?...
Q91. Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description. (Exh...
Q92. In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?...
Q93. Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations tha...
Q94. From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering int...
Q95. An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6....
Q96. Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patte...
Q97. What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?
Q98. Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting ...
Q99. Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and ad...
Q100. Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination o...
Q101. Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology. (Exhibit)...
Q102. What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined...
Q103. How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?...
Q104. Which option describes the "selective network security virtualization" phase of incrementa...
Q105. Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?...
Q106. An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6....
Q107. Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?...
Q108. What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an execu...
Q109. Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's atta...
Q110. What is the purpose of SIEM?
Q111. Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability. (Exhibit)...
[×]

Download PDF File

Enter your email address to download PaloAltoNetworks.PCCET.v2024-05-13.q111.pdf

Email:

DumpsFiles

Our website provides the Largest and the most Latest vendors Certification Exam materials around the world.

Using dumps we provide to Pass the Exam, we has the Valid Dumps with passing guranteed just which you need.

  • DMCA
  • About
  • Contact Us
  • Privacy Policy
  • Terms & Conditions
©2025 DumpsFiles

www.dumpsfiles.com materials do not contain actual questions and answers from Cisco's certification exams.